June 2019

Civil Services Prelims Solved Paper- Series B

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1. Consider the following statements:

1.       Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.

2.       Cattle release ammonia into environment.

3.       Poultry industry release reactive nitrogen compounds into environment

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  2 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

2. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

A. Recently discovered uranium deposits

B.  Tropical rain forests

C.  Underground cave systems

D.   Water reservoirs

ANSWER: D

 

3. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1.       The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2.       H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.

3.       Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4.       H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  4 only

D.   1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D

4. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

A. Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface

B.  Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation

C.  The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

D.   Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

ANSWER: A

 

5. Consider the following statements.

1.       The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2.       The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: B

 

6. Consider the following statements:

1.       The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968

2.       The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of IndiA.

3.       The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968

4.       If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken pu for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B.  3 only

C.  3 and 4 only

D.   1, 3 and 4

ANSWER: C

 

7. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime minister ship of

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B.  Lal Bahadur Shastri

C.  Indira Gandhi

D.   Morarji Desai

ANSWER: A

 

8. Consider the following statements

1.       Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2.       Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3.       Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self- Sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of IndiA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

10. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

A. Third Schedule

B.  Fifth Schedule

C.  Ninth Schedule

D.   Twelfth Schedule

ANSWER: B

 

11. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

A. anti-malarial drug

B.  biodiesel

C.  pulp for paper industry

D.   textile fibre

ANSWER: D

 

12. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

3. Land surface temperature of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

13. Consider the following States

1.       Chhattisgarh

2.       Madhya Pradesh

3.       Maharashtra

4.       Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

A.  2–3–1–4

B.   2–3–4–1

C.   3–2–4–1

D.    3–2–1–4

ANSWER: C

 

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

15. Consider the following

1.       Carbon monoxide

2.       Methane

3.       Ozone

4.       Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2, 3 and 4 only

C.  1 and 4 only

D.   1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D

 

16. Consider the following pairs:

1. Adriatic Sea: Albania

2. Black Sea: Croatia

3. Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean Sea: Morocco

5. Red Sea           : Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B.  1, 3 and 4 only

C.  2 and 5 only

D.   1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ANSWER: B

 

17. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

A. China

B.  India

C.  Myanmar

D.   Vietnam

ANSWER: B

 

18. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier         River

1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna

2. Bara Shigri      : Chenab

3. Milam              : Mandakini

4. Siachen           : Nubra

5. Zemu               : Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 4

B.  1, 3 and 4

C.  2 and 5

D.   3 and 5

ANSWER: A

 

19. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phoratc and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

A. Pesticides in agriculture

B.  Preservatives in processed foods

C.  Fruit-ripening agents

D.   Moisturizing agents in cosmetics

ANSWER: A

 

20. Consider the following statements.

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of IndiA.

2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

21. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of.

A. Chalukya

B.  Chandela

C.  Rashtrakuta

D.   Vijayanagara

ANSWER: D

 

22. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.

2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  1 and 2 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

23. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nibarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D

 

24. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.

2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.

3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the   Indian   National   Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  1 and 3 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

25. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs

Person                                       Position held

1.       Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru:    President, All India Liberal Federation

2.       K.C. Neogy                    :   Member, The Constituent Assembly

3.       P.C. Joshi                       :  General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B.  1 and 2 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

26. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

B.  Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

C.  Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

D.   Tansen invented many Ragas.

ANSWER: A

 

27.   Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

A. Humayun

B.  Akbar

C.  Jahangir

D.   Shah Jahan

ANSWER: C

 

28. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

A. Manas National Park

B.  Namdapha National Park

C.  Neora Valley National Park

D.   Valley of Flowers National park

ANSWER: D

 

29. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

A. Department of Science and Technology

B.  Ministry of Labour and Employment

C.  NITI Aayog

D.   Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

ANSWER: C

 

30. On 21st June, The Sun

A. does not set below the horizon at the arctic Circle

B.  does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

C.  shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

D.   shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

ANSWER: A

 

31. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D

 

32. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

B.  The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

C.  It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

D.   Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

ANSWER: B

 

33. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

A. International Monetary Fund

B.  United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

C.  World Economic Forum

D.   World Bank

ANSWER: C

 

34. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813′:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with ChinA.

2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.

3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: C

 

35. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

(1) It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries

(2) The national council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C

 

36. Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization             Leader

1. All India Anti  Untouchability League:   Mahatma Gandhi

2. All India Kisan Sabha                            : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

3. Self-Respect Movement                      : E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B.  1 and 2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

37. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

A. Chanhudaro

B.  Kot Diji

C.  Sohgaura

D.   Desalpur

ANSWER: C

 

38. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

A. Kanganahalli

B.  Sanchi

C.  Shahbazgarhi

D.   Sohgaura

ANSWER: A

 

39. Consider the following

1. Deification of the Buddha

2. Treading the  path of Bodhisattvas

3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?

A. 1 only

B.  1 and 2 only

C.  2 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

40. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

B.  It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

C.  The forced laborer was entitled to weekly wages.

D.   The eldest son of the laborer was sent as the forced laborer

ANSWER: A

 

41. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

A. Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

B.  Tobacco, cotton and rubber

C.  Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

D.   Rubber, coffee and wheat

ANSWER: C

 

42. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.

2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned  rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

43. Consider the following pairs:

Famous place               River

1. Pandharpur                 : Chandrabhaga

2. Tiruchirappalli               : Cauvery

3. Hampi                            : Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

44. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because

A. Poverty rates vary from State to State

B.  Price levels vary from State to State

C.  Gross State Product varies from State to State

D.   Quality of public distribution varies from State to State

ANSWER: A

 

45. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

A. Creating   the   artificial   rains   in some regions

B.  Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

C.  Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

D.   Reducing the global warming

ANSWER: D

 

46. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned

A. Extraction of rare earth elements

B.  Natural gas extraction technologies

C.  Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

D.   Waste-to-energy technologies

ANSWER: D

 

47. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

A. Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

B.  Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

C.  Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National park.

D.   Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife                Sanctuaries and Nagarjuna–Srisailam Tiger Reserve

ANSWER: A

 

48. Consider the following statements:

1. Some               species of turtles are herbivores.

2. Some               species of fish are herbivores.

3. Some               species of marine mammals are herbivores.

4. Some               species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2, 3 and 4 only

C.  2 and 4 only

D.   1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D

 

49. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife                                   Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer: Cauvery River

2. Irrawaddy Dolphin      : Chambal River

3. Rusty-spotted Cat       : Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: C

 

50. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?

A. They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

B.  They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

C.  They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

D.   They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

ANSWER: A

 

51. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.

2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.

3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.

4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  3 and 4

C.  1, 2 and 3

D.   4 only

ANSWER: B

 

52. The word ‘Denisovan’ is a sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

A. fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

B.  an early human species

C.  a cave system found in North- East IndiA.

D.   a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

ANSWER: B

 

53. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

B.  Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratoreis.

C.  A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

D.   Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.

ANSWER: A

 

54. Consider the following statements A Digital signature is

1.       an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2.       used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet

3.       an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/are correctly?

A. 1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

55. In the context of wearable technology. which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1.       Location identification of a person.

2.       Sleep monitoring of a person

3.       Assisting the hearing-impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D

 

56. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1.       It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.

2.       It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.

3.       It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4.       It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4

B.  2 and 3

C.  1 and 3

D.   1 and 4 only

ANSWER: A

 

57. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

A. ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

B.  ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

C.  Possibility of   inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed

D.   It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

ANSWER: B

 

58. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1.       Genetic predisposition of some people

2.       Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.

3.       Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4.       Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1, 3 and 4

D.   2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D

 

59. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

A. A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

B.  A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

C.  A gene that makes plants pest resistant

D.   An herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops.

ANSWER: A

 

60. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

B.  Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine

C.  Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

D.   Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

ANSWER: B

 

61. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1.       No High court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2.       An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of IndiA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D

 

62. Consider the following statements:

1.       Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.

2.       In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A

 

63. With reference to the cultivation of Karif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements.

1.       Area under rice cultivation is the highest.

2.       Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oil seeds.

3.       Area   of   cotton   cultivation   is more than that of sugarcane.

4.       Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2, 3 and 4 only

C.  2 and 4 only

D.   1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: A

 

64. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

A. Spices

B.  Fresh fruits.

C.  Pulses

D.   Vegetable oils

ANSWER: D

 

65. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

A. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers.

B.  Absence of restraint

C.  Opportunity to do whatever one likes

D.   Opportunity to develop oneself fully

ANSWER: B

 

66. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?

A. Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports

B.  Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds

C.  Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

D.   Following an expansionary monetary policy

ANSWER: D

 

67. Consider the following statements:

1.       The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

2.       They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in IndiA.

3.       They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.

4.       They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor general of India by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  1 and 2 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

68. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

A. Australia

B.  Canada

C.  The European Union

D.   The United States of America

ANSWER: C

 

69. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?

A. Japan

B.  Russia

C.  The United Kingdom

D.   The United States of America

ANSWER: B

 

70. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

A. Increase in the cash reserve ratio

B.  Increase in the banking habit of the population

C.  Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio

D.   Increase in the population of the country

ANSWER: B

 

71. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

A. Integrated   Rural   Development Programme

B.  Lead Bank Scheme

C.  Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

D.   National Skill Development Mission

ANSWER: B

 

72. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1.       Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.

2.       State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.

3.       State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

73. Consider the following statements:

1.       Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.

2.       All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D

 

74. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

A. Advances

B.  Deposits

C.  Investments

D.   Money at call and short notice

ANSWER: B

 

75. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1.       the foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector

2.       Increasing the government expenditure

3.       Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B.  1 and 3 only

C.  2 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

76. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

A. First  Administrative  Reforms Commission (1966)

B.  Rajamannar committee (1969)

C.  Sarkaria commission (1983)

D.   Natinoal Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

ANSWER: C

 

77. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

A. Certificate of Deposit

B.  Commercial Paper

C.  Promissory Note

D.   Participatory Note

ANSWER: D

 

78. Consider the following statements:

1.       As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fun Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

2.       People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A

 

79. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc?

1.       Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2.       Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3.       Finance Commission

4.       Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5.       NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2

B.  1, 3 and 4

C.  3, 4 and 5

D.   2 and 5

ANSWER: A

 

80. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans. which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.       From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.

2.       The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.

3.       In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, For the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

81. Consider the following statements about particularly vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1.       PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union territory.

2.       A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

3.       There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4.       Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B.  2, 3 and 3

C.  1, 2 and 4

D.   1, 3 and 4

ANSWER: C

 

82. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

A. The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenge in any court of law.

B.  The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

C.  In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

D.   State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

ANSWER: B

 

83. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1.       The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the Commencement of first session of the year.

2.       When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C

 

84. Consider the following statements:

1.       The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.

2.       The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti- corruption instrument.

3.       A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4.       The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2, 3 and 4 only

C.  2 and 4 only

D.   1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: C

 

85. Consider the following statements.

1.       As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to sell the bamboos grown on forest areas.

2.       As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3.       The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

A. Article 19

B.  Article 21

C.  Article 25

D.   Article 29

ANSWER: B

 

87. Consider the following statements:

1.       According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in IndiA.

2.       In India, there is no intellectual Property Appellate Board.

3.       Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in IndiA.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

88. Consider the following statements

1.       The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

2.       State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C

 

89. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories

B.  The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only

C.  The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

D.   It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district

ANSWER: C

 

90. Consider the following statements

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1.       if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers

2.       no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C

 

91. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

1.       AIIB has more than 80 member nations.

2.       India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.

3.       AIIB does not have any members from outside AsiA.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: A

 

92. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

A. To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit

B.  To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments

C.  To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. / 50 crore or more

D.   To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. / 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

ANSWER: D

 

93. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the

A. Banks Board Bureau

B.  Reserve Bank of India

C.  Union Ministry of Finance

D.   Management of concerned bank

ANSWER: A

 

94. Consider the following statements.

1.       Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of IndiA.

2.       One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas

3.       Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 and 3 only

C.  1 and 3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B

 

95. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and Volte (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1.       LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.

2.       LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D.   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D

 

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1.       Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2.       Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily

3.       Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  2 only

C.  3 only

D.   1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: C

 

97. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index?

A. Maintenance of law and order

B.  Paying taxes

C.  Registering property

D.   Dealing with               construction permits

ANSWER: A

 

98. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

A. The   Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules 1998

B.  The  Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

C.  The E-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

D.   The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

ANSWER: C

 

99. The economic cost of good grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and Bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

A. transportation cost only

B.  interest cost only

C.  procurement incidentals and distribution cost

D.   Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

ANSWER: C

 

100. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

A. The proportion of literates in the population.

B.  The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines.

C.  The size of population in the working age group.

D.   The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society.

ANSWER: D

Some Important Economic Terms

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Fiscal Policy

Fiscal policy pertains to public revenue (tax and non-tax sources of revenue) and Public Expenditure (Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure). How and from which sources public revenue would be mobilized is one concern of the fiscal policy. The second concern how public expenditure would be allocated to different heads. Public expenditure of recurring nature is called revenue expenditure. It may be considered governments consumption expenditure whereas capital expenditure is expenditure that creates assets. Fiscal policy is kept expansionary in case economy is facing recession and it is kept contractionary if economy is facing inflation. The two prime objectives of the fiscal policy are: growth and price stability. The secondary goals may include capital formation and equity. Fiscal policy can be distinguished from monetary policy, in that fiscal policy deals with taxation and government spending and is often administered by an executive under laws of a legislature. Monetary policy, on the other hand, deals with the money supply and interest rates and is often administered by a central bank.

Fiscal deficit

The total deficit (which is often called the fiscal deficit or just the ‘deficit’) is the primary deficit plus interest payments on the debt. The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as fiscal deficit. It is an indication of the total borrowings needed by the government. While calculating the total revenue, borrowings are not included. The gross fiscal deficit (GFD) is the excess of total expenditure including loans net of recovery over revenue receipts (including external grants) and non-debt capital receipts. The net fiscal deficit is the gross fiscal deficit less net lending of the Central government. Generally fiscal deficit takes place either due to revenue deficit or a major hike in capital expenditure. Capital expenditure is incurred to create long-term assets such as factories, buildings and other development.

We can also differentiate between Gross Fiscal Deficit and Net Fiscal Deficit. The gross fiscal deficit (GFD) is the excess of total expenditure including loans net of recovery over revenue receipts (including external grants) and non-debt capital receipts. The net fiscal deficit is the gross fiscal deficit less netlending of the Central government.

Dumping

Dumping is a term used in the context of international trade. It’s when a country or company exports a product at a price that is lower in the foreign importing market than the price in the exporter’s domestic market. Because dumping typically involves substantial export volumes of a product, it often endangers the financial viability of the product’s manufacturers or producers in the importing nation.

Depreciation and Devaluation

Both the terms are related to fall in the purchasing capacity of a currency vis-à-vis other currencies. Depreciation occurs when the forces of supply and demand cause the value of their currency to drop. By contrast, devaluation occurs only in countries that do not allow their exchange rates to float. These countries’ governments control the official value of their currency. Thus depreciation takes place due to the invisible market forces- demand and supply of a currency vis-a-cis other currencies. Devaluation is a deliberate decision by the central bank of country to reduce or decrease the value of a currency. Thus depreciation takes place in case of a floating exchange rate under the influence of market forces. Devaluation, however, is administered or regulated exchange rate by the central bank of country. Even in floating exchange rate, the central banks intervene by supplying or absorbing foreign currency to settle the domestic currency’s exchange rate. This is called devaluation.

Basel Committee

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) is the primary global standard setter for the prudential regulation of banks and provides a forum for regular cooperation on banking supervisory matters. Its 45 members comprise central banks and bank supervisors from 28 jurisdictions. BASEL 1 Norms. Introduced in 1988. Started capital measurement system called Basel capital accord also called Basel 1. The minimum capital requirement was fixed at 8% of risk-weighted assets (RWA). Basel II is the second of the Basel Accords, (now extended and partially superseded by Basel III), which are recommendations on banking laws and regulations issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. The Basel II Accord was published initially in June 2004 and was intended to amend international banking standards that controlled how much capital banks were required to hold to guard against the financial and operational risks banks face. These regulations aimed to ensure that the more significant the risk a bank is exposed to, the greater the amount of capital the bank needs to hold to safeguard its solvency and overall economic stability. Basel II attempted to accomplish this by establishing risk and capital management requirements to ensure that a bank has adequate capital for the risk the bank exposes itself to through its lending, investment and trading activities. One focus was to maintain sufficient consistency of regulations so to limit competitive inequality amongst internationally active banks. Basel II was implemented in the years prior to 2008, and was only to be implemented in early 2008 in most major economies; that year’s Financial crisis intervened before Basel II could become fully effective. As Basel III was negotiated, the crisis was top of mind and accordingly more stringent standards were contemplated and quickly adopted in some key countries including in Europe and the US. Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord or Basel Standards) is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy, stress testing, and market liquidity risk. This third installment of the Basel Accords was developed in response to the deficiencies in financial regulation revealed by the financial crisis of 2007–08. It is intended to strengthen bank capital requirements by increasing bank liquidity and decreasing bank leverage.

Basel III was agreed upon by the members of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in November 2010, and was scheduled to be introduced from 2013 until 2015; however, implementation was extended repeatedly to 31 March 2019 and then again until 1 January 2022.

Main Features of Basel 3

Capital requirements- The original Basel III rule from 2010 required banks to fund themselves with 4.5% of common equity (up from 2% in Basel II) of risk-weighted assets (RWAs). Since 2015, a minimum Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) ratio of 4.5% must be maintained at all times by the bank. The minimum Tier 1 capital increases from 4% in Basel II to 6%, applicable in 2015, over RWAs. This 6% is composed of 4.5% of CET1, plus an extra 1.5% of Additional Tier 1 (AT1).

Capital Buffers-Furthermore, Basel III introduced two additional capital buffers:

A mandatory “capital conservation buffer”, equivalent to 2.5% of risk-weighted assets. Considering the 4.5% CET1 capital ratio required, banks have to hold a total of 7% CET1 capital ratio, from 2019 onwards. A “discretionary counter-cyclical buffer”, allowing national regulators to require up to an additional 2.5% of capital during periods of high credit growth. The level of this buffer ranges between 0% and 2.5% of RWA and must be met by CET1 capital.

Leverage ratio-Basel III introduced a minimum “leverage ratio”. This is a non-risk-based leverage ratio and is calculated by dividing Tier 1 capital by the bank’s average total consolidated assets (sum of the exposures of all assets and non-balance sheet items). The banks are expected to maintain a leverage ratio in excess of 3% under Basel III.

Liquidity requirements- Basel III introduced two required liquidity ratios.The “Liquidity Coverage Ratio” was supposed to require a bank to hold sufficient high-quality liquid assets to cover its total net outflows over 30 days. The Net Stable Funding Ratio was to require the available amount of stable funding to exceed the required amount of stable funding over a one-year period of extended stress.

Purchasing Power parity

One popular macroeconomic analysis metric to compare economic productivity and standards of living between countries is purchasing power parity (PPP). PPP is an economic theory that compares different countries’ currencies through a “basket of goods” approach. According to this concept, two currencies are in equilibrium—known as the currencies being at par—when a basket of goods is priced the same in both countries, taking into account the exchange rates.

Sanitary and phyto sanitary Standards

The terms pertain to WTO provisions. The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures is one of the final documents approved at the conclusion of the Uruguay Round of the Multilateral Trade Negotiations. It applies to all sanitary (relating to animals) and phytosanitary (relating to plants) (SPS) measures that may have a direct or indirect impact on international trade. The SPS agreement includes a series of understandings (trade disciplines) on how SPS measures will be established and used by countries when they establish, revise, or apply their domestic laws and regulations. Countries agree to base their SPS standards on science, and as guidance for their actions, the agreement encourages countries to use standards set by international standard setting organizations. The SPS agreement seeks to ensure that SPS measures will not arbitrarily or unjustifiably discriminate against trade of certain other members nor be used to disguise trade restrictions. In this SPS agreement, countries maintain the sovereign right to provide the level of health protection they deem appropriate, but agree that this right will not be misused for protectionist purposes nor result in unnecessary trade barriers. A rule of equivalency rather than equality applies to the use of SPS measures. The 2012 classification of non-tariff measures (NTMs) developed by the Multi-Agency Support Team (MAST), a working group of eight international organisations, classifies SPS measures as one of 16 non-tariff measure (NTM)chapters.

Non –Tariff barriers

A nontariff barrier is a way to restrict trade using trade barriers in a form other than a tariff. Nontariff barriers include quotas, embargoes, sanctions, and levies. As part of their political or economic strategy, large developed countries frequently use nontariff barriers to control the amount of trade they conduct with other countries.

Trade Deficit

A trade deficit is an economic measure of international trade in which a country’s imports exceed its exports. A trade deficit represents an outflow of domestic currency to foreign markets. It is also referred to as a negative balance of trade (BOT).

Trade Deficit = Total Value of Imports – Total Value of Exports

Current Account Deficit

The current account deficit is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports. The current account includes net income, such as interest and dividends, and transfers, such as foreign aid, although these components make up only a small percentage of the total current account. The current account represents a country’s foreign transactions and, like the capital account, is a component of a country’s balance of payments (BOP).

Hellicopter Money

Helicopter money is a theoretical and unorthodoxmonetary policy tool that central banks use to stimulate economies. Economist Milton Friedman introduced the framework for helicopter money in 1969, but former Federal Reserve Chairman Ben Bernanke popularized it in 2002. Central banks across the globe were struggling to spur economic growth in 2016. They had used nearly all their tools to attempt to spark economic growth, including negative interest rates and stimulus programs that buy bonds every month. The Bank of Japan and the European Central Bank cut their interest rates into negative territory, attempting to stop banks from hoarding money and encouraging lending to consumers to support growth. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) warned of fragile global macroeconomic growth, which could lead to turbulence in the global financial markets. Consequently, central banks ended up looking for new ways to spark economic growth, such as “helicopter money,” which provided an alternative to quantitative easing (QE). Helicopter money involves the central bank or central government supplying large amounts of money to the public, as if the money was being distributed or scattered from a helicopter. Contrary to the concept of using helicopter money, central banks use quantitative easing to increase the money supply and lower interest rates by purchasing government or other financial securities from the market to spark economic growth. Unlike with helicopter money, which involves the distribution of printed money to the public, central banks use quantitative easing to create money and then purchase assets using the printed money. QE does not have a direct impact on the public, while helicopter money is made directly available to consumers to increase consumer spending.

SDRs

The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves. So far SDR 204.2 billion (equivalent to about US$291 billion) have been allocated to members, including SDR 182.6 billion allocated in 2009 in the wake of the global financial crisis. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies—the U.S. dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling. It is an accounting creation, so it is also called “paper gold.”

The SDR was created as a supplementary international reserve asset in the context of the Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system. The collapse of Bretton Woods system in 1973 and the shift of major currencies to floating exchange rate regimes lessened the reliance on the SDR as a global reserve asset. Nonetheless, SDR allocations can play a role in providing liquidity and supplementing member countries’ official reserves, as was the case with the 2009 allocations totaling SDR 182.6 billion to IMF members amid the global financial crisis.

The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.

The SDR is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies.

The SDR was initially defined as equivalent to 0.888671 grams of fine gold—which, at the time, was also equivalent to one U.S. dollar. After the collapse of the Bretton Woods system, the SDR was redefined as a basket of currencies.

The SDR basket is reviewed every five years, or earlier if warranted, to ensure that the SDR reflects the relative importance of currencies in the world’s trading and financial systems. The reviews cover the key elements of the SDR method of valuation, including criteria and indicators used in selecting SDR basket currencies and the initial currency weights used in determining the amounts (number of units) of each currency in the SDR basket. These currency amounts remain fixed over the five-year SDR valuation period but the actual weights of currencies in the basket fluctuate as cross-exchange rates among the basket currencies move. The value of the SDR is determined daily based on market exchange rates. The reviews are also used to assess the appropriateness of the financial instruments comprising the SDR interest rate (SDRi) basket.

During the last review concluded in November 2015, the Board decided that the Chinese renminbi (RMB) met the criteria for inclusion in the SDR basket. Following this decision, the Chinese RMB joined the US dollar, euro, Japanese yen, and British pound sterling in the SDR basket, effective October 1, 2016.

Extended Fund Facility

The Extended Fund Facility is lending facility of the Fund of the IMF and it was established in 1974 to help countries address medium- and longer-term balance of payments problems.

Great Chola Temples

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Chola dynasty temples are mainly located around the state of Tamilnadu. The Great Chola Temples were constructed by Chola dynasty rulers. These Hindu temples were completed between early 11th and the 12th century CE. The monuments included in the UN Heritage sites are: the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Temple of Gangaikonda Cholapuram and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram. The Brihadisvara Temple was recognised in 1987; the Temple of Gangaikondacholapuram and the Airavatesvara Temple were added as extensions to the site in 2004. The criteria on which these were included in the UN Heritage sites are as follows:

Criterion (i): The three Chola temples of Southern India represent an outstanding creative achievement in the architectural conception of the pure form of the Dravidan type of temple.

Criterion (ii): The Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur became the first great example of the Chola temples, followed by a development of which the other two properties also bear witness.

Criterion (iii): The three Great Chola Temples are an exceptional and the most outstanding testimony to the development of the architecture of the Chola Empire and the Tamil civilization in Southern India.

Criterion (iv): The Great Chola temples at Thanjavur, at Gangaikondacholapuram and Darasuram are outstanding examples of the architecture and the representation of the Chola ideology.

Brihadisvara Temple

The Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva. It is one of the largest South Indian temples and an exemplary example of fully realized Tamil architecture. Built by Raja Raja Chola I between 1003 and 1010 AD. The original monuments of this 11th century temple were built around a moat. It included gopura, the main temple, its massive tower, inscriptions, frescoes and sculptures predominantly related to Shaivism, but also of Vaishnvaism and Shaktism traditions of Hinduism. The temple was damaged in its history and some artwork is now missing. Additional mandapam and monuments were added in centuries that followed. The temple now stands amidst fortified walls that were added after the 16th century.

Built out of granite, the vimanam tower above the sanctum is one of the tallest in South India. The temple has a massive colonnaded prakara (corridor) and one of the largest Shiva linga in India. It is also famed for the quality of its sculpture, as well as being the location that commissioned the brass Nataraja – Shiva as the lord of dance, in 11th century. The complex includes shrines for Nandi, Amman, Subrahmanyar, Ganesha, Sabhapati, Dakshinamurti, Chandesrvarar, Varahi and others. The temple is one of the most visited tourist attractions in Tamil Nadu.

Airavatesvara Temple

The Airavatesvara Temple is in the town of Darasuram, near Kumbakonam completed in 1166 CE. It is one among a cluster of eighteen medieval era large Hindu temples in the Kumbakonam area. The temple is dedicated to Shiva. It also reverentially displays Vaishnavism and Shaktism traditions of Hinduism, along with the legends associated with sixty three Nayanars – the Bhakti movement saints of Shaivism. Named after the White Elephant of Indra, this temple is an exquisite testimony to the grand temple architecture of the Cholan Empire. It is the last of the 3 great Cholan temples built by successive generations of Kings starting from Rajaraja I. Airavateswara temple was built by Rajaraja II around 1150 AD. One of the striking features of this temple is Rajagambhira Thirumandapam – Royal Courtyard, with intricately carved pillars, long steps made of granite stones and elegant chariots drawn by horse – again hewn out of stone. You will see finer workmanship in this temple than the earlier temples. Darasuram is literally a stone’s throw away from Kumbakonam.

The stone temple incorporates a chariot structure, and includes major Vedic and Puranic deities such as Indra, Agni, Varuna, Vayu, Brahma, Surya, Vishnu, Saptamtrikas, Durga, Saraswati, Sri Devi (Lakshmi), Ganga, Yamuna, Subrahmanya, Ganesha, Kama, Rati and others. The temple was much larger and once had seven courtyards according to inscriptions. Only one courtyard survives, parts of the temple such as the gopuram is in ruins, and the main temple and associated shrines stand alone. The temple continues to attract large gatherings of Hindu pilgrims every year.

Gangaikondacholapuram Brihadisvara Temple

The Gangaikondacholapuram Brihadisvara Temple is a Hindu temple located at Gangaikondacholapuram about 70 kilometres (43 mi) from Thanjavur Brihadisvara Temple. Completed in 1035 AD by Rajendra Chola I as a part of his new capital, this Chola dynasty era temple is similar in design and has a similar name as the 11th century, and sometimes just called the Gangaikondacholapuram temple.

It is dedicated to Shiva and based on a square plan, but the temple reverentially displays Vaishnavism, Shaktism and syncretic equivalence themes of Hinduism with statues of Vishnu, Durga, Surya, Harihara, Ardhanishvara, and others. In addition to the main shrine with linga, the temple complex has a number of smaller shrines, gopura, and other monuments, with some partially ruined or restored in later centuries. The temple is famed for its bronze sculptures, artwork on its walls, the Nandi and the scale of its curvilinear tower.

Great non-moderate or assertive leaders of Indian National Movement: Lal- Bal- Pal

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The Indian National Congress(INC) which was established in 1885 by A.O Hume was divided into two groups(in the year 1907) mainly by extremists and moderates at the Surat Session of the Congress.The period 1885-1905 was known as the period of the moderates as moderates dominated the Indian National Congress. These Moderates used petition, prayers, meetings, leaflets and pamphlets memorandum and delegations to present their demands in front of the British government. Moderates were not able to achieve notable goals other than the expansion of the legislative council by the Indian Council Act of 1892. This created dissatisfaction among the people. In 1907 the INC meeting was to be held in Nagpur and the extremists wanted Lala Lajpat Rai or Bal Gangadhar Tilak as president. But moderates wanted Rash Behari Ghosh to be president. Gopal Krishna Gokhale changed the meeting place from Nagpur to Surat fearing that if Nagpur was to be held as meeting place then Bal Gangadhar Tilak would become President. The partition of Bengal became the rise of extremism in INC. In Surat Congress a great split between the moderate and assertive nationalist leaders was seen. The main moderate leaders of the Indian national movement included among others, Dadabhai Naoroji, R.C.Dutt, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, S.N.Banerjee and.A.O.Hume. On the other hand the main extremist or assertive leaders of the movement included great names like Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal and (Lal, Bal, Pal). Both the groups contributed to the cause of freedom struggle in their own manners.

The Early Nationalists were known as the Moderates. Moderate political leaders in India, who were active between 1885 and 1905, were mostly drawn from educated middle-class professionals including lawyers, teachers and government officials, many of them were educated in England. They have become known as “Early Nationalists” because they believed in demanding reforms while adopting constitutional and peaceful means to achieve their aims. The Early Nationalists had full faith in the British sense of justice, fair play, honesty, and integrity while they believed that British rule was a boon for India. The Early Nationalists were staunch believers in open-minded and moderate politics.

When the method of moderate leaders was not indicating any immediate sign of the British intention of giving right to self determination and freedom to India, a group of people came forward with more assertive and pro-active methods fro winning freedom for India. Their period existed from 1905 to 1919. When Mahatma Gandhi came to India and assumed leadership for freedom movement, both the groups –moderates and extremist or assertive leaders- continued to contribute to freedom movement during the Gandhian era, which existed from 1919 until Indian Independence in 1947.

Although moderates or early nationalists were able to politicize Indian people and highlight the highhandedness and injustices of the British rulers, they failed to achieve any tangible results. This was one of the reasons of frustration and anger among large number of people and political leaders in India. and thus what was born in the ranks of leadership was a lot more assertive group of leaders, traditionally referred to as “extremist” leaders, the words which many think should not be used. They feel that they should be described only as “nationalist leaders” without any derogatory adjective.

The contribution of Moderates

However, the achievements of the moderates or early nationalists cannot be overlooked. They created a national awakening among the people that made Indians conscious of the bonds of common political, economic, and cultural interests that united them, They also trained people in politics by popularising the ideas of democracy, civil liberties, secularism and nationalism .The Early Nationalists did pioneering work by exposing the true nature of British rule in India. They made the people realise the economic content and character of British imperialism. In doing so, they weakened the foundations of British rule in India. Their political and economic programmes established the idea that India must be ruled in the interest of the Indians. The efforts of the Early Nationalists also led to the implementation of various social reforms such as the appointment of a Public Service Commission. A resolution of the House of Commons (1893) allowing for simultaneous examination for the Indian Civil Service in London and India and appointment of the Welby Commission on Indian Expenditure (1895). They also passed The Indian Councils Act of 1892. These achievements served as the basis for nationalist movements in later years by extremist leaders. The differences between the moderates and the extremists became official in the Surat session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1907.

Surat Split

The differences between the moderates and the extremists became official in the Surat session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1907. The meeting was to take place in Nagpur that year. The extremists wanted Lala Lajpat Rai or Bal Gangadhar Tilak to be the President. But the moderates wanted Rash Behari Ghosh as President. There was a rule that the session’s President could not be from the home province. Tilak’s home province was Bombay Presidency in which Surat was also situated. So, the moderates changed the venue to Surat so that Tilak could be excluded from the presidency. The moderates also wanted to drop the resolutions on swadeshi, boycott movements and national education. Rash Behari Ghosh became the president in the session which was held at Surat. Tilak was not even allowed to speak and this angered the extremists, who wanted to cancel the session. Both sides were firm on their demands and neither was willing to find a common path. The moderates then held a separate meeting in which they reiterated the Congress goal of self-government within the British Empire and to adopt only constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Lucknow Pact

Lucknow Pact, (December 1916), agreement made by the Indian National Congress headed by Maratha leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah; it was adopted by the Congress at its Lucknow session on December 29 and by the league on Dec. 31, 1916. The meeting at Lucknow marked the reunion of the moderate and radical wings of the Congress. The pact dealt both with the structure of the government of India and with the relation of the Hindu and Muslim communities.

On the former count, the proposals were an advance on Gopal Krishna Gokhale’s “political testament.” Four-fifths of the provincial and central legislatures were to be elected on a broad franchise, and half the executive council members, including those of the central executive council, were to be Indians elected by the councils themselves. Except for the provision for the central executive, these proposals were largely embodied in the Government of India Act of 1919. The Congress also agreed to separate electorates for Muslims in provincial council elections and for weightage in their favour (beyond the proportions indicated by population) in all provinces except the Punjab and Bengal, where they gave some ground to the Hindu and Sikh minorities. This pact paved the way for Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the Khilafat movement and Mohandas Gandhi’s noncooperation movement from 1920.

Lal- Bal-Pal- Here is a description of the architects of assertive Indian National Movement

Lala Lajpat Rai

Lala Lajpat Rai (28 January 1865 – 17 November 1928) was a great Indian freedom fighter. He played a pivotal role in the Indian Independence movement. He was popularly known as Punjab Kesari. He was one third of the Lal Bal Pal triumvirate. He was also associated with activities of Punjab National Bank and Lakshmi Insurance Company in their early stages in 1894. Lajpat Rai was born on 28 January 1865 in a Hindu Aggarwal family, as a son of Urdu and Persian government school teacher Munshi Radha Krishan Agrawal and his wife Gulab Devi Agrawal, in Dhudike (now in Moga district, Punjab). In 1877, he was married to Radha Devi Agrawal, with whom had two sons, Amrit Rai Agrawal and Pyarelal Agrawal, and a daughter, Parvati Agrawal. In 1884, his father was transferred to Rohtak and Rai came along after the completion of his studies at Lahore. In 1886, he moved to Hisar where his father was transferred, and started to practice law and became founding member of Bar council of Hisar along with Babu Churamani. Since childhood he also had a desire to serve his country and therefore took a pledge to free it from foreign rule, in the same year he also founded the Hisar district branch of the Indian National Congress and reformist Arya Samaj with other like minded people. After joining the Indian National Congress and taking part in political agitation in Punjab, Lala Lajpat Rai was deported to Mandalay, Burma (now Myanmar), without trial in May 1907. In November, however, he was allowed to return when the viceroy, Lord Minto, decided that there was insufficient evidence to hold him for subversion. Lajpat Rai’s supporters attempted to secure his election to the presidency of the party session at Surat in December 1907, but he did not succeed. Graduates of the National College, which he founded inside the Bradlaugh Hall at Lahore as an alternative to British institutions, included Bhagat Singh. He was elected President of the Indian National Congress in the Calcutta Special Session of 1920. In 1921, he founded Servants of the People Society, a non-profit welfare organisation, in Lahore, which shifted its base to Delhi after partition, and has branches in many parts of India. In 1928, the British government set up the Commission, headed by Sir John Simon, to report on the political situation in India. The Indian political parties boycotted the Commission, because it did not include a single Indian in its membership, and it met with country-wide protests. When the Commission visited Lahore on 30 October 1928, Lajpat Rai led non-violent march in protest against it. The protest was with the words “Simon go back” and black flags. The superintendent of police, James A. Scott, ordered the police to lathi (baton) charge the protesters and personally assaulted Rai. Despite being extremely injured, Rai subsequently addressed the crowd and said, “I declare that the blows struck at me today will be the last nails in the coffin of British rule in India”.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Bal Gangadhar Tilak (or Lokmanya Tilak; 23 July 1856 – 1 August 1920), born as Keshav Gangadhar Tilak, was a great nationalist, teacher, lawyer and an independence activist. He is considered by many as the first leader of the Indian Independence Movement. The British colonial authorities called him “The father of the Indian unrest.” He was also conferred with the title of “Lokmanya”, which means “accepted by the people (as their leader)”. Tilak was one of the first and strongest advocates of Swaraj (“self-rule”) and a strong radical in Indian consciousness. He is known for his quote in Marathi: “Swarajya is my birthright and I shall have it!”. He formed a close alliance with many Indian National Congress leaders including Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai, Aurobindo Ghose, V. O. Chidambaram Pillai and Muhammad Ali Jinnah. Tilak opposed the moderate views of Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and was supported by fellow Indian nationalists Bipin Chandra Pal in Bengal and Lala Lajpat Rai in Punjab. They were referred to as the “Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate”. In 1907, the annual session of the Congress Party was held at Surat, Gujarat. Trouble broke out over the selection of the new president of the Congress between the moderate and the radical sections of the party . The party split into the radicals faction, led by Tilak, Pal and Lajpat Rai, and the moderate faction. Nationalists like Aurobindo Ghose, V. O. Chidambaram Pillai were Tilak supporters. During his lifetime among other political cases, Bal Gangadhar Tilak had been tried for Sedition Charges in three times by British India Government—in 1897, 1909,[ and 1916. In 1897, Tilak was sentenced to 18 months in prison for preaching disaffection against the Raj. In 1909, he was again charged with sedition and intensifying racial animosity between Indians and the British. The Bombay lawyer Muhammad Ali Jinnah in Tilak’s defence could not annul the evidence in Tilak’s polemical articles and Tilak was sentenced to six years in prison in Burma. On 30 April 1908, two Bengali youths, Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose, threw a bomb on a carriage at Muzzafarpur, to kill the Chief Presidency Magistrate Douglas Kingsford of Calcutta fame, but erroneously killed two women traveling in it. While Chaki committed suicide when caught, Bose was hanged. Tilak, in his paper Kesari, defended the revolutionaries and called for immediate Swaraj or self-rule. The Government swiftly charged him with sedition. At the conclusion of the trial, a special jury convicted him by 7:2 majority. In passing sentence, the judge indulged in some scathing strictures against Tilak’s conduct. He threw off the judicial restraint which, to some extent, was observable in his charge to the jury. He condemned the articles as “seething with sedition”, as preaching violence, speaking of murders with approval. “You hail the advent of the bomb in India as if something had come to India for its good. I say, such journalism is a curse to the country”. Tilak was sent to Mandalay from 1908 to 1914. Later, Tilak re-united with his fellow nationalists and re-joined the Indian National Congress in 1916. He also helped found the All India Home Rule League in 1916–18, with G. S. Khaparde and Annie Besant. After years of trying to reunite the moderate and radical factions, he gave up and focused on the Home Rule League, which sought self-rule. Tilak travelled from village to village for support from farmers and locals to join the movement towards self-rule. Tilak was impressed by the Russian Revolution, and expressed his admiration for Vladimir Lenin. The league had 1400 members in April 1916, and by 1917 membership had grown to approximately 32,000. Tilak started his Home Rule League in Maharashtra, Central Provinces, and Karnataka and Berar region. Besant’s League was active in the rest part of India. Tilak said, “I regard India as my Motherland and my Goddess, the people in India are my kith and kin, and loyal and steadfast work for their political and social emancipation is my highest religion and duty”. The Deccan Education Society that Tilak founded with others in the 1880s still runs Institutions in Pune like the Fergusson College.

Bipin Chandra Pal

Bipin Chandra Pal (7 November 1858 – 20 May 1932) was a great Indian nationalist, a freedom fighter, writer, orator and social reformer of Sylheti origin. He was one of the main architects of the Swadeshi movement. He stood against the partition of Bengal. Bipin Chandra Pal was born in the village of Poil, Habiganj, Sylhet, Bengal Presidency of British India, in a Hindu Bengali Kayastha Vaishnava family. Pal is known as the ‘Father of Revolutionary Thoughts’ in India and was one of the freedom fighters of India. Pal became a major leader of the Indian National Congress. At the Madras session of congress held in 1887, Bipin Chandra Pal made a strong plea for repeal of the Arms Act which was discriminatory in nature. Along with Lala Lajpat Rai and Bal Gangadhar Tilak he belonged to the Lal, Bal, Pal trio that was associated with revolutionary activity. Aurobindo Ghosh and Pal were recognised as the chief exponents of a new national movement revolving around the ideals of Purna Swaraj, Swadeshi, boycott and national education. His programme consisted of Swadeshi, Boycott and national education. He preached and encouraged the use of Swadeshi and the Boycott of foreign goods to eradicate poverty and unemployment. He wanted to remove social evils from the form and arouse the feelings of nationalism through national criticism. He had no faith in mild protests in the form of Non-Cooperation with the British colonialists. On that one issue, the Assertive nationalist leader had nothing common with Mahatma Gandhi. During last six years of his life he parted company with the Congress and led a secluded life. Sri Aurobindo referred to him as one of mightiest prophets of Nationalism. As a journalist, Pal worked for Bengal Public Opinion, The Tribune and New India, where he propagated his brand of nationalism. He wrote several articles warning India of the changes happening in China and other geopolitical situations. In one of his writings, describing where the future danger for India will come from, Pal wrote under the title “Our Real Danger”. The most prominent books of Pal include Indian Nationalism, Nationality and Empire, Swaraj and the Present Situation, The Basis of Social Reform, The Soul of India.

The 2018 Wimbledon Championships

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The 2018 Wimbledon Championships, a Grand Slam tennis tournament, took place at the All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club in Wimbledon, London, United Kingdom. The main tournament began on Monday, 2 July 2018 and finished on Sunday, 15 July 2018. Novak Djokovic won the Gentleman’s Singles title and Angelique Kerber won the Ladies Singles title. The 2018 tournament was the 132nd edition of The Championships, the 125th staging of the Ladies’ Singles Championship event, the 51st in the Open Era and the third Grand Slam tournament of the year. It was played on grass courts and was part of the ATP World Tour, the WTA Tour, the ITF Junior tour and the NEC Tour. The tournament was organised by All England Lawn Tennis Club and International Tennis Federation.

Roger Federer and Garbiñe Muguruza were both unsuccessful in defending their 2017 titles. Federer lost in the quarterfinals to eventual finalist Kevin Anderson, while Muguruza lost in the second round to Alison Van Uytvanck.

The list of champions in the main categories is as follows:

Men’s Singles– Novak Djokovic

Women’s Singles– Angelique Kerber

Men’s Doubles– Mike Bryan/ Jack Sock

Women’s Doubles-Barbora Krejčíková /Kateřina Siniaková

Mixed Doubles-Alexander Peya /Nicole Melichar

Boys’ Singles-Tseng Chun-hsin

Girls’ Singles-Iga Świątek

Boys Doubles-Yankı Erel /Otto Virtanen

Girls’ Doubles-Wang Xinyu / /Wang Xiyu